0

I am a little bit confused how this works and would greatly appreciate some explanation.

Say I have the following setup:

Virtual machine running VPN 1 --> Host PC running VPN 2 --> Destination website

Does the "destination website" see VPN 2 as it's origin IP, or no?

If yes, then can I assume that VPN 2 sees VPN 1 as it's origin?

1
  • How is the VM networking set up? This will affect where the VM's traffic goes. Jul 20 at 0:05

1 Answer 1

0

The VM will establish a connection to the server using VPN1 and thus the VPN exit seen by the server will be the VPN1 exit. The connection to the VPN1 gateway is done through VPN2 though, so VPN1 will see VPN2 exit as the origin, not you public IP address. This will only be seen by VPN2, which then does not see the server you connect to.

  ....|======== VPN2 ======|------- VPN1 ------| server 
      |                    |                   |
    your public IP       IP VPN2 exit        IP VPN1 exit
4
  • Thank you for replying. Is there a proper way to chain VPN servers?
    – almighty
    Jul 19 at 16:51
  • @almighty: What exactly do you want to achieve? Jul 19 at 18:42
  • I'd like it so the final destination websites sees VPN 2 as its origin. And then VPN 2 sees VPN 1 as it's origin. So no tunneling, just a proper chain in order.
    – almighty
    Jul 19 at 20:24
  • @almighty: What you describe as what you want is just VPN1 and VPN2 switched compared to what you have currently. "So no tunneling, just a proper chain in order." - in this case the next VPN would start at the first VPN exit - but you cannot run any software there since it is out of your control. Jul 20 at 5:08

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.