I have a client who claims that some text messages "appeared" on her phone that she did not send. I think she may be telling the truth because it seems entirely too coincidental that these messages were sent just as my client filed for divorce. I am also suspicious because I am told that her husband gave the text messages to his lawyer but he has not been around her (or her phone) for several months so he wouldn't have access to her phone. I am also suspicious because there are only a limited number of texts, whereas it is my experience that more than a few texts would be exchanged between persons that were engaged in a romantic relationship.
Is it possible to have a text message that my client didn't send appear on her smart phone making it look as if she did send the text? If so, am I correct in assuming that the person who is responsible for sending the texts would have access to those text messages?
It may be important to note that this did not occur on American soil. My client was in Lebanon at the time these texts appeared on her phone.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.